Most of the students if asked this question will answer 1, since is seems to be equal to
( with one being multiplied by itself infinite times.
However, more advance mathematics introduces us principle of limits and able to evaluate like cases.
Now, consider this limit
and we all know the limit gives us constant .
Consequently, as , and , so the limit will give us the limit of .
a) Is a finite number?(or somewhat equal to as what the arguments stated above)
b) Are there errors in my understandings particularly in my arguments being used?
c)Resolve the argument or give proof/disproof that is not equal to one.
Thanks for responding. I am really confused about this.