×

# Always mod 1?!

Prove or disprove: $a^{p-1} \equiv 1 ( \mathrm{mod} p)$ When $$p$$ is a prime number and $$p \nmid a$$. ( I checked 2, 3, 5, and 7, all of these four satisfies the condition )

Note by Takeda Shigenori
3 years ago

Sort by:

Isn't it Fermat's Little Theorem? · 3 years ago