Solve :\(\displaystyle \frac{1}{a_1}+\frac{1}{a_2}+\cdots+\frac{1}{a_n}=1\) for positive integers \((a_1,a_2,a_3,\cdots,a_n)\) .

There could be a remarkable proof/method.

Solve :\(\displaystyle \frac{1}{a_1}+\frac{1}{a_2}+\cdots+\frac{1}{a_n}=1\) for positive integers \((a_1,a_2,a_3,\cdots,a_n)\) .

There could be a remarkable proof/method.

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## Comments

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TopNewestSylvester's sequence! – Ashu Dablo · 1 year, 1 month ago

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What about 1/(n)(n+1)? Or for generalization, Leibniz's triangle? – Sal Gard · 1 year, 1 month ago

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– Aditya Narayan Sharma · 1 year, 1 month ago

Yes I've tried that and thanks for mentioning too , but I think those are not only solutions. Indeed suppose we are to generalize it for 5 variables & Leibniz's triangle gives us 5 different values only. But there exists many more pairs than thatLog in to reply

How should we ? It's Its ...... How ? – Sayandeep Ghosh · 1 year, 2 months ago

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