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Can we generalize it?

Solve :\(\displaystyle \frac{1}{a_1}+\frac{1}{a_2}+\cdots+\frac{1}{a_n}=1\) for positive integers \((a_1,a_2,a_3,\cdots,a_n)\) .

There could be a remarkable proof/method.

Note by Aditya Sharma
6 months, 3 weeks ago

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Sylvester's sequence! Ashu Dablo · 6 months, 1 week ago

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What about 1/(n)(n+1)? Or for generalization, Leibniz's triangle? Sal Gard · 6 months ago

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@Sal Gard Yes I've tried that and thanks for mentioning too , but I think those are not only solutions. Indeed suppose we are to generalize it for 5 variables & Leibniz's triangle gives us 5 different values only. But there exists many more pairs than that Aditya Sharma · 6 months ago

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How should we ? It's Its ...... How ? Sayandeep Ghosh · 6 months, 3 weeks ago

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