# Can we generalize it?

Solve :$$\displaystyle \frac{1}{a_1}+\frac{1}{a_2}+\cdots+\frac{1}{a_n}=1$$ for positive integers $$(a_1,a_2,a_3,\cdots,a_n)$$ .

There could be a remarkable proof/method.

2 years, 1 month ago

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Sylvester's sequence!

- 2 years, 1 month ago

What about 1/(n)(n+1)? Or for generalization, Leibniz's triangle?

- 2 years ago

Yes I've tried that and thanks for mentioning too , but I think those are not only solutions. Indeed suppose we are to generalize it for 5 variables & Leibniz's triangle gives us 5 different values only. But there exists many more pairs than that

How should we ? It's Its ...... How ?

- 2 years, 1 month ago