If \(a\div b=1\) , then can we say that a and b are coprimes.
Can a number be coprime to itself ?
I got confused due to the text in this question -
https://brilliant.org/practice/right-triangle-trigonometry/?p=3

If gcd(a,b)=1, then a and b are coprime integers. In the case of a = b, gcd(a,a)=a which does not follow the definition. Hence, a number cannot be coprime to itself. (Based on my opinion)

You can lookup co prime numbers on Wikipedia but for that question , they mean that if the answer comes out to be 4/16 , you'll have to enter it as 1/4

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TopNewestIf gcd(a,b)=1, then a and b are coprime integers. In the case of a = b, gcd(a,a)=a which does not follow the definition. Hence, a number cannot be coprime to itself. (Based on my opinion)

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You can lookup co prime numbers on Wikipedia but for that question , they mean that if the answer comes out to be 4/16 , you'll have to enter it as 1/4

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