I was scribbling in my note yesterday, when I thought to write something about infinity algebraic expressions. After many tried sums, I had found out a very strange expression in my note.

As I tried to solve it, I saw something very keen and interesting which is in the image.

Is it true ? I too don't think so, but think maybe could be true Like if agree. . Share if you find confusing and interesting or disagree

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## Comments

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TopNewestThe fallacy is that $\infty$ is not a number and does not follow the laws of algebra.

Otherwise, $\infty = \infty + 1 \implies 1 = 0$, which is obviously not true.

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Infinity is a concept not a number. Thus it cannot be treated as a number. And also two infinitys are never equal.

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I perfectly agree with you. There may be infinite types of infinities

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If you go by the standard Set Theory, there are like 5 useful types of infinities. For example set of natural numbers is of the same size as the set of all primes.

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You are absolutely true . There are many types of infinities like in various sequences.

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$\infty$ ^2 is not $\infty$

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It is

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OK I didn't know.

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infinity is concept of numbers but it can't be defined so it's not true

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infinity -infinity is not 0

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It is not true. I don't understand what is it .

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Infinity isn't a number,its a thing you may say,so you can't treat it as a number

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Check into the Hilbert Hotel.

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infinity - infinity is not 0

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It's = Infinity Because Infinity is a concept not a number. Thus it cannot be treated as a number. And also two infinitys are never equal.

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Here two things are wrong ..

2 . $\infty - \infty$ is not defined , it is an indeterminate form.

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No

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I don't exactly know how Infinity works but my teacher once told me that infinity minus infinity is not 0

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You have done wrong calculation.

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This reminds me of myself back then. No, infinity is an idea/concept. There's no way you can treat it as a number, thus you can't solve it.

Cheers!

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infinity is something , which is taken sometimes for FOR DOES NOT EXIST condition or sometimes when we take a very large no.

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your 2 infinites are not equal in the second line {unless infintiy is 4, which clearly it isnt as it isnt a fixed number}

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Here lies the fallacy... infinity is a relative concept...its not an absolute number...hence it fails to satisfy laws of algebra...

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Infinity is used to indicate very large number which we can't even imagine. It is a theoretical concept.

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I agree with the others - infinity is a concept, not a number.

But aren't you contradicting your own statement? If [(infinity)^2 = infinity] and [-2

infinity2 = infinity], then isn't infinity-2 = infinity??Log in to reply

Thanks for getting me right !

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Lets consider infinite as n for simpler conventions to facilitate operations ...so n is large no. n^2 is of even larger order we cannot add them both as they are of diff orders /or subtract them.

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If you do what is in the brackets first you get ∞^2... which is still ∞

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$\infty - \infty \neq 0$

so you can't do like that !!!

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