Prove that \(\cfrac { (3n)! }{ { (3!) }^{ n } }\) is integer for all \(n\ge 0\).

**This is the solution I tried**

\({(3!)}^{ n }={(6) }^{ n }\).We have to prove \({(6) }^{ n }|(3n)!\).We have product of 3 consecutive numbers is divisible by \(6\).Now there are \(n\) pairs of \(3\) consecutive numbers.Therefore \({ 6 }^{ n }y=(3n)!\) for some \(y\)..Therefore \(\cfrac { (3n)! }{ { (3!) }^{ n } }\) is integer for all \(n\ge 0\).

Is it correct?

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TopNewestThe given expression can be written as \[\dfrac{(3n)!}{6^{n}}\] which can be written as \[\dfrac{(3n)!}{3^{n}\times2^{n}}.\]Now,we have that the maximum power of \(3\) that divides \((3n!)\)\[=\lfloor{\dfrac{3n}{3}}\rfloor+\lfloor{\dfrac{3n}{9}}\rfloor+...\]Similarly the maximum power of \(2\) that divides \(3n!\)=\[\lfloor{\dfrac{3n}{2}}\rfloor+\lfloor{\dfrac{3n}{4}}\rfloor+.....\]Now,for\(n\geq3\) the expressions above are \(>3^{n}\) and \(2^{n}\) respectively.Thu for all\(n\geq3\) the given expression is an integer.Checking cases for \(n=0,1,2\) reveals that the given expression is an integer for all three.Hence proved. – Adarsh Kumar · 2 years, 5 months ago

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Using some combinatorics:

(3n)! / (3!)^n = (3n)! / (3!)(3!) ... (3!)(3!) n factors of (3!). One can think of this as the number of identical permutations with 3n letters and n different letters with 3 as frequency in the letter. It remains to prove that the number of identical permutations is an integer. – John Ashley Capellan · 2 years, 5 months ago

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– Shivamani Patil · 2 years, 5 months ago

Your solution is great.But can you give elementary number theory proof.Log in to reply

I believe I have a brilliantly simple solution to your question - I will use induction. Let f(n) = \(\frac{(3n)!}{(3!)^{n} }\). Base test: for n=1, f(1) = 1 and f(2) = \(\frac{6!}{3! * 3!}\) = \(\frac{4 * 5 * 6}{6}\) = 20. Now for the inductive step: \(\frac{(3n+3)!}{(3!)^{n} * 3!}\), and by breaking up the fraction we see that f(n+1) is a product of \(\frac{(3n)!}{(3!)^{n} }\) and \(\frac{(3n+1)(3n+2)(3n+3)}{3!}\). We already know that the former is already an integer by our inductive hypothesis, so we need to prove that the latter is also an integer. This is simple as 3 or more consecutive integers are divisible by 3 and 2 (In fact, n consecutive integers are always divisible by n!). Hence, our proof is complete. I hope that helps :D – Curtis Clement · 2 years, 4 months ago

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Note that \(\dfrac{(3n)!}{(3!)^n}\) represents the number of ways to arrange \(3n\) objects with \(n\) triplets of object being identical, in a row. For instance, at \(n = 2\) , you are actually arranging 6 objects with 2 triplets, such as arranging AAABBB in a row, yielding \(\dfrac{6!}{3!3!} = \dfrac{(2(3))!}{(3!)^2}\)

Note that the number of objects = number of objects limited by the requirement of the permutation. (That is from the previous example, if I have \(6\) objects , and there must be \(2\) sets of \(3\) objects, it is physically possible.) Hence, it is actually possible to arrange \(3n\) objects with \(n\) triplets of object being identical in a row, thus causing the number of ways to be an integer. Henceforth, \(\dfrac{(3n)!}{(3!)^n}\) that represents the number of ways to arrange \(3n\) objects with \(n\) triplets of object being identical, in a row, will thus be an integer.

P.S : If however, the number of objects \(<\) number of objects limited by the requirement of the permutation, the scenario will not physically happens. Hence, the expression that evaluates the number of ways might not be an integer. However, since we are not interested in it, we can hence ignore it. – Tan Kiat · 2 years, 5 months ago

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(3!)^n=3^n×2^n.now 3n> 3 (n-1)> 3 (n-2)......> 3 so 3n×3 (n-1)×3 (n-2).........×3=3^n×n! contains in (3n)!.again 3n> 2n> 2 (n-1).......> 2 so 2n×2 (n-1)......×2=2^n×n! contains in (3n)!.so (3n)! is is divisible by (3!)^n – Subhrajyoti Sinha · 2 years, 5 months ago

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...2*1 as it is inside the brackets, rather than outside. – Curtis Clement · 2 years, 4 months agoLog in to reply

How did get this? Since there are \( 3n \) numbers being multiplied, there should be \( \frac{3n}{3} = n \) pairs of consecutive number. For example, \( 6! =(6*5*4)(3*2*1) \) can be partitioned into 2 pairs. – Siddhartha Srivastava · 2 years, 5 months ago

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– Shivamani Patil · 2 years, 5 months ago

But we have to take \((3n)!\) numbers in pairs of 3 .Therefore dividing by 3 we get \(n(3n-1)!\) pairs.Log in to reply

– Siddhartha Srivastava · 2 years, 5 months ago

\( (3n)! \) is the product of \( 3n \) numbers,i.e \( 1*2*...*(3n-1)*(3n) \). Not \( (3n)! \) numbers. Also, you can check smaller cases. The highest power of \( 6 \) dividing \( (3*2)!\) is \( 6^2 \), not \( 6^{2(5!)} = 6^{240} \).Log in to reply

– Shivamani Patil · 2 years, 5 months ago

Ohh yes I missed it in hurry .I have updated solution now is it correct?Log in to reply

– Siddhartha Srivastava · 2 years, 5 months ago

Yes, now it is, though you could also mention the fact that the product of 3 consecutive integers is also divisible by 6.Log in to reply

– Shivamani Patil · 2 years, 5 months ago

I have mentioned that na.Log in to reply

– Siddhartha Srivastava · 2 years, 5 months ago

Sorry. Didn't read.Log in to reply

– Shivamani Patil · 2 years, 5 months ago

That's ok. u study in which class?Log in to reply

– Siddhartha Srivastava · 2 years, 5 months ago

11th.Log in to reply

– Shivamani Patil · 2 years, 5 months ago

OhhhLog in to reply