Lets start the discussion fresh. Some say \(\frac{0}{0}\) is 0 and others 1 and most undefined.

Me on the neither side. But will start with a simple elementary proof that \(\frac{0}(0}=0\)

\(\frac{0}{0} = 0\times\frac{1}{0} \\ = 0 \text{ (Since, 0 * n = 0)}\)

Can you guys think of other way than usual? The usual proof is being for undetermined. What about for '1'?

Other proofs include theoretical practical sense.

We give "nothing" the value of '0'. Division represents how many of x in m, for x÷m.

Logically, for 0÷0 := How many 'nothing' in 'nothing'. Practically 'nothing', of-course! So 0 again

n÷0 := How many something in nothing. There is nothing so how can there be something, so answer is nothing =: 0

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TopNewestUhh... \( n \in \mathbb{R} \implies 0 \times n =0\). Note that \(\frac{1}{0}\) is

nota real number! – Deeparaj Bhat · 2 months, 3 weeks agoLog in to reply

Check out what is 0 divided by 0? – Calvin Lin Staff · 2 months, 3 weeks ago

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Here is some cool stuff where undefined objects have been discussed to some extent. – Agnishom Chattopadhyay · 2 months, 3 weeks ago

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