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But is it possible to somehow prove without using Pythagoras Theorem or common sense?
Edit:I just worked out the proof, but if you have ways to prove it other than the angles of an iscoceles triangle and possibly angles of an equaliteral triangle it would be interesting to hear.

Easy Math Editor

This discussion board is a place to discuss our Daily Challenges and the math and science related to those challenges. Explanations are more than just a solution — they should explain the steps and thinking strategies that you used to obtain the solution. Comments should further the discussion of math and science.

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## Comments

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TopNewestIf you put it in a square, the top vertice won't touch the side of the square.

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Ok, thanks

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Did anyone else get this as their childhood interpretation of the A=bh/2 proof with equalateral triangles? I did.

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I know this is messy, but please?

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But is it possible to somehow prove without using Pythagoras Theorem or common sense? Edit:I just worked out the proof, but if you have ways to prove it other than the angles of an iscoceles triangle and possibly angles of an equaliteral triangle it would be interesting to hear.

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