Can anyone help me in this question :-

**Prove or disprove**: If \(H\) is a normal subgroup of \(G\) such that \(H\) and \(G/H\) are
abelian, then \(G\) is abelian.

I don't need any counter example. I need a proper proof.

Can anyone help me in this question :-

**Prove or disprove**: If \(H\) is a normal subgroup of \(G\) such that \(H\) and \(G/H\) are
abelian, then \(G\) is abelian.

I don't need any counter example. I need a proper proof.

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TopNewest@Deeparaj Bhat Check this out – Agnishom Chattopadhyay · 4 days, 5 hours ago

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