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I am confused about this topic

Can \(\large{\frac{-1}{x^{2}}}\) be considered an asymptote of \(\large {{y}={x}^{2}-\frac{1}{x^{2}}}\) ?

Note by Yasir Soltani
1 year, 4 months ago

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"... one curve is a curvilinear asymptote of another (as opposed to a linear asymptote) if the distance between the two curves tends to zero as they tend to infinity...more" My view is therefore yes. The curves are asymptotic as \(x \to 0\) or \(\frac{1}{x} \to \infty\). Chew-Seong Cheong · 1 year, 4 months ago

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@Chew-Seong Cheong could you help me with this? Yasir Soltani · 1 year, 4 months ago

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