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I am confused about this topic

Can \(\large{\frac{-1}{x^{2}}}\) be considered an asymptote of \(\large {{y}={x}^{2}-\frac{1}{x^{2}}}\) ?

Note by Yasir Soltani
2 years ago

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"... one curve is a curvilinear asymptote of another (as opposed to a linear asymptote) if the distance between the two curves tends to zero as they tend to infinity...more" My view is therefore yes. The curves are asymptotic as \(x \to 0\) or \(\frac{1}{x} \to \infty\).

Chew-Seong Cheong - 2 years ago

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@Chew-Seong Cheong could you help me with this?

Yasir Soltani - 2 years ago

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