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I need your help, please help me.

What you can conclude about functions if f(x)*g(x)= (a finite number) and f(x) is tending to infinity and g(x) is tending to zero for a given value of x?

Can I replace f(x) by a diverging series and g(x) by a converging series (which converges to zero).

What is conclusion when I replace n by diverging series and r by a converging series?

It might seems foolishness but what can we conclude if we replace function by numbers such that one number tends to infinity while other tends to zero.

Note by Prakash Chandra Rai
2 years ago

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