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infinite sets

we have a finite number x(say) on dividing it by n and 2n , \(\frac{x}{n}\) and \(\frac{x}{2n}\) (where n TENDS TO INFINITY)

we obtain two infinite sets..however the cardinalities are different so in light of aleph naughts,ones,... how can u explain it?

Note by Aritro Aich
3 years, 3 months ago

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