So I was told by Patrick Hompe that there's some magical theorem used to prove inequalities in which you test if a function has only one inflection point, and then you prove the inequality for just one case. What's the exact theorem statement, and does it have a name? (I'm not talking about Jensen's Inequality)

## Comments

Sort by:

TopNewestFor all those curious, I got this as a result:

I also hear that it's called the (n-1)-equal-value theorem, as shown here. – Cody Johnson · 3 years, 7 months ago

Log in to reply

this document. – Cody Johnson · 3 years, 7 months ago

See the footnote on page 7 ofLog in to reply

I have used this technique in the past without a name and just written the whole thing out. The graders not only had nothing to complain about but they were also very happy. – Ahaan Rungta · 3 years, 7 months ago

Log in to reply

– Calvin Lin Staff · 3 years, 7 months ago

Can you state this technique / theorem, for those who do not know it?Log in to reply

– Cody Johnson · 3 years, 7 months ago

Please.Log in to reply