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Is it really invertible?

Is \( \cos x = \dfrac1{\sec x} \) and \( \sec x =\dfrac1{\cos x} \) true (individually) for all \(x\)?

Note by Vishal Yadav
1 year, 5 months ago

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The above equalities are always true as they're identities, however, they are meaningful only when \(x ≠ (2n+1)\frac{\pi}{2}\,\,\forall\,\,n\,\epsilon\,\mathbb{Z} \). Aditya Sky · 1 year, 4 months ago

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