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Is this true? And if so, is it possible to generalize?

Let \(F_n\) denote the \(n^\text{th} \) Fibonacci number, where \(F_0 = 0, F_1 = 1\) and \(F_n = F_{n-1} + F_{n-2} \) for \(n=2,3,4,\ldots \).

Does the sequence \(G_n=F_n^2-28\) not prime for \(n\geq 6\)?

Note by Santiago Hincapie
1 year, 2 months ago

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