I guess everyone seems to be knowing the old results,
Yeah you know them, great.
One can easily get them straight from the inequality
Also it can even be realized by the graphs of & that as comes closer to origin (or), the graphs of these trigonometric functions , thereby giving the first two results in our hand.
Furthermore it's seen that near the origin, the sin curve & tan curve .
Did you smell the proof of the last two of the old results?
Anyways, everything's real easy till we reach to the puzzle of ours..
Can you submit the result decorated with the rigorous proof of yours??