Waste less time on Facebook — follow Brilliant.


We know \(3 \times \frac{1}{3} = 1\) which can also be written as \(3 \times 0.33333.... = 0.9999999... \neq 1.\).Why this happens, why both are unequal.?

Note by Kishan K
3 years, 3 months ago

No vote yet
1 vote


Sort by:

Top Newest

\(0.99999...\) and \(1\) are exactly the same. See this previous post. Tim Vermeulen · 3 years, 3 months ago

Log in to reply

How can you confirm that 1/3 = 0.333333.... It is not exact value it is just the approximate value that we use at our convenience when needed. As approximation is taken approximate value is obtained that is 0.99999.... not 1. Shubham Kumar · 3 years, 3 months ago

Log in to reply

The difference between \(0.9999 \ldots\) and \(1\) is infinitesimally small. As such we can't really tell\see the difference between them.

They are actually equal. You can also prove this by an infinite geometric progression which is of the form \(\displaystyle \large 9 \cdot \sum_{n=1}^ \infty \frac{1}{10^n}\) Aditya Parson · 3 years, 3 months ago

Log in to reply


Problem Loading...

Note Loading...

Set Loading...