# sharky's problem !!

some weeks ago sharky kesa posted a note that proves that 1+1=1 here is a better version of it $$\infty =\infty \\ { \infty }^{ 2 }=\infty \times \infty \\ { \infty }^{ 2 }-{ \infty }^{ 2 }=\infty \times \infty -{ \infty }^{ 2 }\\ (\infty +\infty )(\infty -\infty )=\infty (\infty -\infty )\\ cancelling\quad (\infty -\infty )\quad from\quad both\quad sides\\ and\quad we\quad got\quad \\ 2\infty =\infty \\ \infty =0\\ \frac { 1 }{ 0 } =0\\ 1=0\quad \\ here\quad in\quad place\quad of\quad 1\quad we\quad can\quad put\quad any\quad integer$$ hence shown that any integer can be equal to 0

note: i know that it is wrong but maths is fun !!

Note by Rishabh Jain
4 years, 8 months ago

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The flaw is that when you divide by $$(\infty-\infty)$$ on both sides you divide by $$0$$. Cool! :D

- 4 years, 8 months ago

hey finn , i have already mentioned that it's wrong but thanks for your reply hey is there any e-mail id of you i have questions that are silly but i want to ask you if you can help me it would please me !!!

- 4 years, 8 months ago

@Finn Hulse I am not very sure,but I don't think so that $$\infty-\infty = 0$$ [Although I know that the proof is still wrong and we can't divide by $$\infty-\infty$$]

- 4 years, 3 months ago

That's true since there are different levels of infinity.

- 4 years, 3 months ago

But in this proof they're taken to be the same thing.

- 4 years, 3 months ago

I never even saw this until now! @Rishabh Jain

- 4 years, 5 months ago