A strange thought, please help me with this one.
Now, we know that in ceteris paribus condition with the rise in price of the commodity, the demand decreases. So, no supplier would want to see the demand for his commodity decreasing so he/she would decrease his/her supply. But in ceteris paribus condition, the supply of a commodity increases with the increase in price because it becomes comparatively more attractive to sell. Both these statements are contradicting each other but only one can be true. It seems like then there is some flaw in the definition of ceteris paribus I am making but what is it? I am not able to find any so please help. There is nothing like, "It is subjective" because then that too would be a determinant which is neglected in ceteris paribus condition.
Definition of ceteris paribus:- All the other determinants except own price of rhe commodity is kept constant.