# Which side do I apply AM-GM on?

$\sqrt[n]{n!} \geq \sqrt{n}$

Prove the above for all positive integers $n$.

• Try to give a non-inductive, non-calculus proof

Note by Sharky Kesa
5 years, 2 months ago

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Try to give a non-inductive, non-calculus proof

So I will give an inductive, calculus-requiring proof.

Lemma 1: $\left( 1 + \frac{1}{n} \right)^n \le e$ for all positive integer $n$.

One way to prove it is to observe that $1 + \frac{1}{n} \le 1 + \frac{2}{2n} + \frac{1}{4n^2} = \left( 1 + \frac{1}{2n} \right)^2$, thus by induction,

\displaystyle\begin{aligned} \left(1 + \frac{1}{n} \right)^n &\le \left(1 + \frac{1}{2n} \right)^{2n} \\ &\le \left(1 + \frac{1}{4n} \right)^{4n} \\ &\le \ldots \\ &\le \lim_{k \to \infty} \left(1 + \frac{1}{2^k n} \right)^{2^k n} \\ &= \lim_{n \to \infty} \left(1 + \frac{1}{n} \right)^n \\ &= e \end{aligned}

Lemma 2: $e < 3$

\displaystyle\begin{aligned} e &= \frac{1}{0!} + \frac{1}{1!} + \frac{1}{2!} + \frac{1}{3!} + \frac{1}{4!} + \frac{1}{5!} + \frac{1}{6!} + \ldots \\ &< 1 + \frac{1}{1} + \frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{4} + \frac{1}{8} + \frac{1}{16} + \frac{1}{32} + \ldots \\ &= 1 + 2 \\ &= 3 \end{aligned}

Now, the claim $\sqrt[n]{n!} \ge \sqrt{n}$ is equivalent to $(n!)^2 \ge n^n$. We will prove this by induction. The base cases are $n = 1, 2, 3$ in which it is true. Now suppose that it's true for some $n \ge 3$, and we'll prove the claim for $n \gets n+1$.

\displaystyle\begin{aligned} ((n+1)!)^2 &= (n!)^2 \cdot (n+1)^2 \\ &\ge n^n \cdot (n+1)^2 \\ &\ge n^n \cdot (n+1) \cdot e & \text{by Lemma 2, because \n \ge 3 > e\} \\ &\ge n^n \cdot (n+1) \cdot \left( 1 + \frac{1}{n} \right)^n & \text{by Lemma 1} \\ &= \left(n + \frac{n}{n} \right)^n \cdot (n+1) \\ &= (n+1)^n \cdot (n+1) \\ &= (n+1)^{n+1} \end{aligned}

- 5 years, 2 months ago

We have to prove $(n!)^2 \ge n^n$. Instead of proving it using Sterling's approximation or induction here is a solution on AM-GM. I found a nice form of $(n!)^2$ recently. $(n!)^2=[1 \cdot n][2 \cdot (n-1)]\ldots[n \cdot1]$(there are $n$ terms). Now, for some variable $m$, such that $1 \le m \le n$ we have $m(n-m+1) \ge n$. The result follows.

- 5 years, 2 months ago

Wise solution!

- 5 years, 2 months ago

Nice solution

- 5 years, 2 months ago

Why is it that for a variable $m$
$1\leq m\leq n$ is $m(n-m+1)\geq n$ ?

- 5 years, 2 months ago

Take $n=m+k$ where $k \ge 0$. The inequality simplifies to $m(k+1) \ge m+k$ or $mk+m \ge m+k$ or $m \ge 1$ which is true.

- 5 years, 2 months ago

OK.. Thanks!

- 5 years, 2 months ago

$\sqrt[n]{n!} \geq \sqrt{n}$

${n!} \geq {\sqrt{n}}^n$

$(n) \cdot (n-1) \cdot (n-2) \cdot \dots \cdot (1) \geq {\sqrt{n}}^n$

$(n)(1) \cdot (n-1)(1+1) \cdot (n-2)(1+2) \cdot \dots \cdot (\frac{n+1}{2})(\frac{n-1}{2}) \geq {\sqrt{n}}^n$ or $(n)(1) \cdot (n-1)(1+1) \cdot (n-2)(1+2) \cdot \dots \cdot (\frac{n}{2}) \geq {\sqrt{n}}^n$

We note that (n-k)(1+k) > n for all -1<k<n+1. So the result follows. By the way, i was sniped by Svatejas Shivakumar.

- 5 years, 2 months ago

Ninja'ed haha tfs

- 5 years, 2 months ago