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Why isn't \( \frac 00 \) simply 0?

A number \(x\), to the power \(a\), and another arbitrary constant \(b\), can be considered as follows: \( \dfrac{x^{a+b}}{x^b} \). Simplifying this fraction, through rules of exponents, we know that it is the same as \(x^{a+b - (b)} = x^a\). So let's look at 0. \(0^1 = \dfrac{0^{1+2}}{0^2} \). Since we know both \(0^1 \) and \(0^2\) are 0, does it not follow that \(\dfrac00 = 0 \)?

Note by M K
2 months, 1 week ago

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The rules of exponents are for non zero \(x\).

As such, division by zero is undefined. Deeparaj Bhat · 2 months, 1 week ago

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@Deeparaj Bhat Ah I see. Thanks for clarifying! M K · 2 months, 1 week ago

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@M K You're welcome. :) Deeparaj Bhat · 2 months, 1 week ago

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0/0 can't be 0 cos it is undefined or sometimes be intermediate. You can confirm using your calculator. That why calculator can't solve such problem. Ayanlaja Adebola · 2 months, 1 week ago

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