Let \(f\left( x \right) \) be a real valued function not identically zero such that \[f\left( x+{ y }^{ n } \right) =f\left( x \right) +{ (f(y)) }^{ n }\quad \forall x,y\epsilon R\] where \(n\epsilon N(n\neq 1)\) and \(f^{ ' }\left( 0 \right) \ge 0\) we may get an explixity form of the function \(f\left( x \right) \).

Then the value of \(\int _{ 0 }^{ 1 }{ f\left( x \right) dx } \) is?

For part one of the above question, click here

For part two of the above question, click here

For more questions related to maths,Click here

×

Problem Loading...

Note Loading...

Set Loading...