Can it be possible?
Calculus
Level
3
Does there exist a function \( f: [ -1, 1 ] \rightarrow \mathbb{R} \) that is not Riemann integrable, but \( f^2 \) (defined as \(f^2(x) = (f(x))^2\) for all \(x\)) is Riemann integrable?
by
Guillermo Templado