# Check Out Parity

Calculus Level pending

For any real valued function $$f: [-a,a] \to \Re$$ $$\forall a>0$$ we have the relation: $\displaystyle \int_{-a}^{a} {f(x)}^2dx=2\displaystyle \int_{0}^{a}{f(x)}^2dx$ Is this True of False?  This is part of this set

×