**True or False?**

By the law of indices, we know that \(a^3 = a \times a \times a\) and \(a^2 = a\times a\).

This also means that \(\require{cancel} \dfrac{a^3}{a^2} = \dfrac{a\times a \times a}{a\times a} = \dfrac{a\times \bcancel a \times \bcancel a}{\bcancel a\times \bcancel a} = a \).

Let \(a = 0 \), we get \(\dfrac{0^3}{0^2} = 0 \).

Since \(0^3 = 0\times0\times0 = 0 \) and \(0^2 = 0\times0 = 0 \), we can conclude that \( \dfrac00 = 1\).

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