**True or false?**:

"Given \(n\) countably infinite sets \(A_1, A_2,A_3,\ldots,A_n\) with \(n\geq2\), there exist a positive integer \(m\leq n\) such that the Cartesian product \(A_1 \times A_2 \times \ldots \times A_m \) is uncountably infinite."

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