I will attempt to prove that $\pi = -\pi$. In which of these steps did I make a flaw in my logic?

**Step 1:** Using a famous theorem, $e^{i\pi } = -1 .$
**Step 2:** Reciprocate both sides of the equation: $e^{-i\pi} = \dfrac{1}{-1} = -1 .$
**Step 3:** Equating both equations in the above two steps gives
$\large e^{i \pi} = e^{-i \pi} .$
**Step 4:** Since the bases are the same,
$i \pi = -i \pi .$
**Step 5:** Canceling the imaginary number yields
$\pi = -\pi .$

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