Let there be a function \(f:\mathbb{Z}\rightarrow\mathbb{R}\), such that

\(f(x)=\frac{f(x-1)}{f(x-2)}\)

\(f(1)=2\)

\(f(2)=1\)

Find \(f(2016)\)

There is an odd property exhibited in this question and FIOF 2. Can you find it, and prove why it is so?

This problem is part of the Figure-It-Out Function! series.

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