Partial Fractions May Help Here!

Calculus Level 4

The expression $$\displaystyle \sum_{n=a}^{\infty} \sum_{b=n}^{\infty} \frac{1}{(n-a)!(b-n)!}$$ , for $$a,b,n \in N$$, can be expressed as $$k^2$$. Find $$k$$.

Try my other calculus challenges here

×

Problem Loading...

Note Loading...

Set Loading...