Partial Fractions May Help Here!

Calculus Level 4

The expression \(\displaystyle \sum_{n=a}^{\infty} \sum_{b=n}^{\infty} \frac{1}{(n-a)!(b-n)!} \) , for \( a,b,n \in N\), can be expressed as \( k^2\). Find \(k\).

Try my other calculus challenges here

×

Problem Loading...

Note Loading...

Set Loading...