# Problems love to argue with people

Algebra Level 4

$\large \text{Arg} (\bar{z}) =- \text{Arg}(z)$

Does the above property hold for each complex number $$z$$?

Clarifications:

• $$\text{Arg}(z)$$ is the principal argument of complex number $$z$$, with a range of $$(-\pi, \pi ]$$.

• $$\bar z$$ is the complex conjugate of complex number $$z$$.

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