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pending

In which step does the following proof go wrong? Or is this a valid proof?

- \(a = b\)
- \(\ln a = \ln b\)
- \(\dfrac{\ln a}{\ln b} = 1\)
- \(\ln a - \ln b = 0\)
- \(\ln\left(\dfrac{a}{b}\right)= 0\)
- \(\dfrac{a}{b} = 1\)
- When \(a = b = 0\), \(\dfrac{-\infty}{-\infty} = \dfrac{0}{0} = 1 \)

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