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If f(x)f(x)f(x) and g(x)g(x)g(x) are functions defined at R\mathbb RR, and equation x−f(g(x))=0x-f(g(x))=0x−f(g(x))=0 has real roots.
Then which cannot be the function g(f(x))g(f(x))g(f(x))?
Have a look at my problem set: SAT 1000 problems
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