# Vercongence?

Calculus Level 3

Consider the following strange definition:

We say a sequence $$(x_n)$$ verconges to $$x$$ if there exist an $$\epsilon>0$$ such that for all $$N\in \Bbb{N}$$, $$n\ge N \implies |x_n-x|<\epsilon$$

Which of the following conclusions is wrong?

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