# Is Infinity / Infinity = 1?

This is part of a series on common misconceptions.

Is this true or false?

\[\dfrac{\infty}{\infty}=1\]

**Why some people say it's true:** Any number divided by itself is 1.

**Why some people say it's false:** We cannot just do arithmetic with something that is not a number.

The statement is \( \color{red}{\textbf{false}}\).

We know we cannot do arithmetic with infinity. But lets take a limit and see if it is true. \[\lim_{x\to\infty} f(x)=\infty,\lim_{x\to\infty} g(x)=\infty, \lim_{x\to\infty} \dfrac{f(x)}{g(x)}=?\] We know two such function are \(f(x)=2x,g(x)=x\). but the limit is then \(2\) and not 1, hence it is not*Proof* :necessarily1, The limit is multivalued and \(\dfrac{\infty}{\infty}\) is undefined.

Rebuttal: If \(\dfrac{\infty}{\infty}\neq 1\), then \(\infty\neq \infty\).

Reply: You are cross multiplying, but it is not legitimate here. lets multiply both sides with \(\ \infty\). we get \(\infty\times\dfrac{\infty}{\infty}\neq 1\times\infty\). Then you assumed that the infinity's would cancel out to one, but remember they are not 1.

**See Also**

**Cite as:**Is Infinity / Infinity = 1?.

*Brilliant.org*. Retrieved from https://brilliant.org/wiki/is-fracinftyinfty1/