# Is infinity times zero = zero?

This is part of a series on common misconceptions.

Is this true or false?

\[0\times \infty=0\]

**Why some people say it's true:** Zero times anything is zero.

**Why some people say it's false:** We cannot do arithmetic with infinity.

The statement is \( \color{red}{\textbf{false}}\).

Proof:We know we cannot do arithmetic with infinity. But lets take a limit and see if it is true. \[\lim_{x\to\infty} f(x)=\infty,\lim_{x\to\infty} g(x)=0, \lim_{x\to\infty} f(x)g(x)=?\] We know two such function are \(f(x)=x,g(x)=\dfrac{1}{x}\). but the limit is then \(1\) and not 0, hence it is notnecessarily0, We could make this limit be any value that we wish, which is why \(\infty\times 0\) is undefined.

Rebuttal: Butany numbermultiplied with zero is zero, why is this not the case here?

Reply: You are correct, but infinity is not a number. And hence it does not apply to infinity.

Rebuttal: If \(\infty \times 0 \neq 0\), then \(0\neq 0\).

Reply: You are dividing by infinity, which is not legal here. we are assuming \(\dfrac{\infty}{\infty}\) is defined, which has been disproven using a similar technique used in the problem.

**See Also**

**Cite as:**Is infinity times zero = zero?.

*Brilliant.org*. Retrieved from https://brilliant.org/wiki/is-infinity-times-zero-zero/