\(0.99999....=1\)! Why? It was proven in many methods, even though its logically unequal. Try the basic one, the same method as making infinitesimals to fraction. Assuming \(x=0.9999...\). Then \(10x=9.9999...\). Subtracting: \[10x-x=9.9999...-0.9999...\] \[9x=9\] \[x=1\] Even though we clearly declare x as 0.999..., The end result is one.

## Comments

Sort by:

TopNewestThis is very interesting, but I don't sure how does it.!! – Gm Kibria · 1 year, 9 months ago

Log in to reply

We also know that \(\frac{1}{3} = 0.33333...\). Multiplying both sides by \(3\) gives: \(\frac{3}{3} = 0.99999...\), or \(1=0.99999...\). – Patrick Prochazka · 1 year, 6 months ago

Log in to reply