Here is the another note which I have written to know that whether this rule for the area of isosceles triangles is something new or if this is incorrect or it already exists.

In the above 2 triangles

if \(a^{2} +b^{2}=4x^{2}\)

area of triangle A =area of triangle B.

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TopNewestYeah its just a fact...

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Do you mean its nothing new, that is it is already a mathematical law ?

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I don't think so it has been proved.

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