Here is the another note which I have written to know that whether this rule for the area of isosceles triangles is something new or if this is incorrect or it already exists.

In the above 2 triangles

if \(a^{2} +b^{2}=4x^{2}\)

area of triangle A =area of triangle B.

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TopNewestYeah its just a fact... – Sarvesh Dubey · 1 year, 4 months ago

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– Siddharth Singh · 1 year, 4 months ago

Do you mean its nothing new, that is it is already a mathematical law ?Log in to reply

– Sarvesh Dubey · 1 year, 4 months ago

I don't think so it has been proved.Log in to reply