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TopNewest\(a=b=c=d=1\) gives \(1 = 1\) that means the \(x\) has infinitely many solutions! – Samuraiwarm Tsunayoshi · 2 years, 5 months ago

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– Pi Han Goh · 2 years, 5 months ago

Oh. You found a loophole. Let me fix that.Log in to reply

– Prasun Biswas · 2 years, 5 months ago

I think you should make \(a,b,c,d\) distinct.Log in to reply

– Krishna Sharma · 2 years, 5 months ago

\(a = b = c = d \neq 0\) also satifies the condition.Log in to reply

positivereals, so you don't need to consider non-negative reals. – Prasun Biswas · 2 years, 5 months agoLog in to reply