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On the treatise of determining co-primes.

\(gcd(k,p)=1\)

The formula states:

\({ k }^{ p\quad }\equiv \quad k-p\quad (mod\quad p)\)

\(k>p\)

For example:

Using \(2\) as \(p\),

And knowing that \(k=3\)

\({ 3 }^{ 2 }\quad \equiv \quad 1\quad (mod\quad 2)\)

By trying out other primes, this always work.

However, one link is still missing can we solve this equation by only knowing \(p\)?

Note by Luke Zhang
1 year, 11 months ago

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It doesnt only work for primes, it works for some other numbers too, but I'm not sure how to generalize it Lee Isaac · 1 year, 11 months ago

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This has been proven using Fermat's Little theorem. But how do I validate it? Luke Zhang · 1 year, 11 months ago

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@Luke Zhang Did u proof that it would work for all primes and only primes?

And how did u find time during CNY? Julian Poon · 1 year, 11 months ago

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